Civil Services
(Preliminary) Examination 2012 Paper I
1.
In the area covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act,
1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
- Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of
land in the Scheduled Areas.
- Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest
produce.
- Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for
granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the
Scheduled Area.
Which
of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(b)
2.
In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is
(a)
to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance.
(b) to let opposition members collect information from the
ministers
(c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for
grant
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or
violent behaviour on the part of some members.
ANSWER:
(a)
3.
How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian
agriculture?
- NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the
indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
- NBA directly monitors and supervises the
scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.
- Application for Intellectual Property Rights
related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the
approval of NBA.
Which of the
statements given is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
ANSWER:
(c)
4.
The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of
the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
- Right to healthy environment, construed as a part
of Right to life under Article 21
- Provision of grants for raising the level of
administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes
under section 275 (1)
- Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned
under Article 243 (A)
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
ANSWER:
(a)
5.
If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it
impact the country?
- Part of the water needs of urban areas will be
met through recycling of waste water.
- The water requirement of coastal cities with
inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting
appropriate technologies that allow for use of ocean water.
- All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked
to the rivers of peninsular India.
- The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore
wells and for installing motors and pump sets to draw groundwater will be
completely reimbursed by the Government.
Selct the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(b)
6.
Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State
Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:
- Securing the citizens of India a uniform civil
code
- Organizing village Panchayats
- Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
- Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure
and cultural opportunities.
Which of the above
are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of
State Policy?
(a)
1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(b)
7.
Consider the following statements:
- Union Territories are not represented in the
Rajya Sabha
- It is within the purview of the Chief Election
Commission to adjudicate the election disputed.
- According to the Constitution of India, the
Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
ANSWER:
(d)
8.
With reference to consumers’ rights/privileges under the provisions of law in
India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
- When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer
forum, no fee is required to be paid.
- In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal
heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(c)
9.
Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following
statements:
- He/she holds the office during the pleasure of
the President.
- He/she need not be a member of the House at the
time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within
six months from the date of his/her election.
- If he/she intends to resign, the letter of
his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
ANSWER:
(b)
10. Which of the
following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
- A dispute between the Government of India and one
or more states
- A dispute regarding elections to either Houses of
the Parliament or that of Legislature of a state
- A dispute between the Government of India and a
Union Territory
- A dispute between two or more states
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(c)
11. Consider the
following kinds of organisms:
- Bacteria
- Fungi
- Flowering Plants
Some species of which
of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(d)
12. Biomass
gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power
crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
- Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk
can be used in biomass gasification.
- The combustible gases generated from biomass
gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
- The combustible gases generated from biomass
gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal
combustion engines.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(a)
13. What is the role
of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?
- It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms
in water.
- It removes all the undesirable odours from the
water.
- It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles,
removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(c)
14. Graphene is
frequently in news recently. What is its importance?
- It is a two-dimensional material and has good
electrical conductivity.
- It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials
tested so far.
- It is entirely made of silicon and has high
optical transparency.
- It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’
required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs.
Which of the
statements given above are correct?
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(c)
15. Lead, ingested or
inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been
banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?
- Smelting units
- Pens and pencils
- Paints
- Hair oil and cosmetics
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(a)
16. With reference to
‘stem cells’ frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
- Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
- Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
- Stem cells can be used for medical therapies
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(b)
17. Consider the
following statements:
Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone depleting substances, are used
- in the production of plastic foams
- in the production of tubeless tyres
- in cleaning certain electronic components
- as pressurizing agent in aerosol cans
which of the
statement given above is/are correct?
(a)
1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(c)
18. A team of
scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory included those from India created
the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the
implication/implications of the creation of anti-matter?
- It will make mineral prospecting and oil
exploration easier and cheaper.
- It will help prove the possibility of the
existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter.
- It will help understand the evolution of the
universe.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(d)
19. Which of the
following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the
continued expansion of universe?
- Detection of microwaves in space
- Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
- Movement of asteroids in space
- Occurrence of supernova explosions in space
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above can be cited as evidence
ANSWER:
(a)
20. Electrically
charged particles from space travelling at speed of several hundred km/sec can
severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the earth. What
prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?
(a)
The earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles
(b) Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer
space
(c) Moisture in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them
from reaching the surface of the Earth.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are
correct.
ANSWER:
(a)
21. With reference to
the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below
are correct?
- Different kinds of specialized surgical
instruments were in common use by 1st century AD.
- Transplant of internal organs in the human body
had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD.
- The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th
century AD.
- The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in
7th century AD.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(b)
22. With reference to
the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both
Buddhism and Jainism?
- Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
- Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
- Denial of efficacy of rituals
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(b)
23. Which of the
following can be said to be essentially the parts of ‘Inclusive Governance’?
- Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to
do banking
- Establishing effective District Planning
Committees in all the districts
- Increasing the government spending on public
health
- Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme
Select the correct
answers using the codes given below:
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(d)
24. The Nagara, the
Dravida and the Vesara are the
(a)
three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent
(b) three main linguistic divisions into which the languages
of India can be classified
(c) three main styles of Indian temple architecture
(d) three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India
ANSWER:
(c)
25. The congress
ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because
(a)
the congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces
(b) emergence of a ‘left wing’ in the Congress made the
working of the ministries impossible
(c) there were widespread communal disturbances in their
provinces
(d) None of the above statements (a), (b) and (c) given above
is correct
ANSWER:
(d)
26. With reference to
National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of ‘Asha’, a
trained community health worker?
- Accompanying women to the health facility for
antenatal care checkup
- Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of
pregnancy
- Providing information on nutrition and
immunization
- Conducting the delivery of baby
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(c)
27. Which of the
following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
- Introduction of diarchy in the executive
government of the provinces
- Introduction of separate communal electorates for
Muslims
- Devolution of legislative authority by the centre
to the provinces
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(c)
28. During Indian
freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the
reason for its formation?
(a)
Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form
a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare
appropriate petitions/representations to the government.
(b) Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its
deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose
(c) Behramji Malabari and M. G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social
reform groups of the country under one organization
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this
context
ANSWER:
(c)
29. Which of the
following parties were established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
- The Peasants and Workers Party of
India
- All India Scheduled Castes Federation
- The Independent Labour Party
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(b)
30. Which of the
following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the
Constitution of India?
(a)
To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State
List and to create one or more All India Services
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the
pension of the President after his/her retirement
(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the
number of Election Commissioners
ANSWER:
(b)
31.
How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood
options of rural poor?
- By setting up a large number of new manufacturing
industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas
- By strengthening 'self-help groups' and providing
skill development
- By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets
and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below :
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(b)
32.
The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human
Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?
- Deprivation of education, health, assets and
services at household level
- Purchasing power parity at national level
- Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at
national level
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below :
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(a)
33.
Which of the following is /are among the noticeable features of the
recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?
- A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a
compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design
- A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the
next ten years in consonance with India's demographic dividend
- Devolution of a specified share of central taxes
to local bodies as grants
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below :
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(a)
34. What is/are the
recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of
manufacturing sector?
- Setting up of National Investment and
Manufacturing Zones
- Providing the benefit of 'single window
clearance'
- Establishing the Technology Acquisition and
Development Fund
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(d)
35. Which of the
following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in
India?
- Placing Annual Financial Statement before the
Parliament
- Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of
India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
- Provisions of supplementary grants and
vote-on-account
- A periodic or at least a mid-year review of
programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and
expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
- Introducing Finance Bill in the
Parliament
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below :
(a)
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
ANSWER:
(d)
36.
Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in
1932, mainly because
(a)
Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations
(b) Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion
(c) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is
correct in this context
ANSWER:
(c)
37.
With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements:
- The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the
Government.
- The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots.
- The lands were surveyed and assessed before being
taxed.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
ANSWER:
(c)
38.
Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated
with economic development :
- Low birthrate with low death rate
- High birthrate with high death rate
- High birthrate with low death rate
Select the correct
order of the above stages using the codes given below:
(a)
1, 2, 3
(b) 2, 1, 3
(c) 2, 3, 1
(d) 3, 2, 1
ANSWER:
(c)
39.
In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight
Core Industries have a combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are
among those Eight Core Industries?
- Cement
- Fertilizers
- Natural gas
- Refinery products
- Textiles
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below :
(a)
1 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
ANSWER:
(c)
40.
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing
on Education?
- Directive Principles of State Policy
- Rural and Urban Local Bodies
- Fifth Schedule
- Sixth Schedule
- Seventh Schedule
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below :
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
ANSWER:
(d)
41.
Government of India encourages the cultivation of 'sea buckthorn'. What is the
importance of this plant?
- It helps in controlling soil erosion and in
preventing desertification.
- It is a rich source of biodiesel.
- It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to
live in cold areas of high altitudes.
- Its timber is of great commercial value.
Which of the
statements given above is /are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(d)
42.
Which of the following is the chief characteristic of 'mixed farming'
(a)
Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops
(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field
(c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together
(d) None of the above
ANSWER:
(c)
43.
A particular State in India has the following characteristics:
- It is located on the same latitude which passes
through northern Rajasthan.
- It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
- Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected
Area Network in this State.
Which one among the
following States has all the above characteristics?
(a)
Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
ANSWER:
(a)
44. Consider the
following crops of India:
- Cowpea
- Green gram
- Pigeon pea
Which of the above
is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(d)
45. Consider the
following factors:
- Rotation of the Earth
- Air pressure and wind
- Density of ocean water
- Revolution of the Earth
Which of the above
factors influence the ocean currents?
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(b)
46.
With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements:
- The country's total geographical area under the
category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other
States.
- In India, the total geographical area of coastal
wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER:
(c)
47.
Consider the following crops of India :
- Groundnut
- Sesamum
- Pearl millet
Which of the above
is/are predominantly rain fed crop/crops?
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(d)
48.
When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following:
- Deep gorges
- U-turn river courses
- Parallel mountain ranges
- Steep gradients causing land-sliding
Which of the above
can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(d)
49.
Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the
Earth's surface, because
- the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from
the Earth's surface
- there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
- the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere
Select the correct answer
using the codes given below:
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(c)
50.
The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause
of concern?
- The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton
will be adversely affected.
- The growth
and survival of coral reefs will
be adversely affected.
- The survival of some animals that have
phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
- The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be
adversely affected.
Which
of the statements given above is /are
correct?
(a)
1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(d)
51. In India, other
than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose,
what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General
(CAG)?
- CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the
Parliament when the President of India declares national
emergency/financial emergency.
- CAG reports on the execution of projects or
programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts
Committee.
- Information from CAG reports can be used by
investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated
the law while managing public finances.
- While dealing with the audit and accounting of
government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting
those who violate the law.
Which
of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a)
1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(c)
52.
The endeavour of 'Janani Suraksha Yojana' Programme is
- to promote institutional deliveries
- to provide monetary assistance to the mother to
meet the cost of delivery
- to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and
confinement
Which
of the statements given above is /are
correct?
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(a)
53.
The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment
(a)
need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but
must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of
the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
(d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha
ANSWER:
(a)
54.
With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following
statements :
- The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot
be challenged in a Court of Law.
- When the orders of the Delimitation Commission
are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot
effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER:
(c)
55.
Consider the following:
- Hotels and restaurants
- Motor transport undertakings
- Newspaper establishments
- Private medical institutions
The employees of
which of the above can have the 'Social Security' coverage under Employees'
State Insurance Scheme?
(a)
1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(d)
56.
According to the Constitution
of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before
the Parliament which of the following?
- The Recommendations of the Union Finance
Commission
- The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
- The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
- The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled
Castes
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below :
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(c)
57.
A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting
of the Parliament during the passage of
- Ordinary Legislation
- Money Bill
- Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below :
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(a)
58.
How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of
rural poverty in India?
- DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in
certain specified backward regions of the country.
- DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of
the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial
measures.
- DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and
inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective
implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
- DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization
of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(b)
59. Which of the
following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the
Indian Constitution?
- To preserve the rich heritage of our composite
culture
- To protect the weaker sections from social
injustice
- To develop the scientific temper and spirit of
inquiry
- To strive towards excellence in all spheres of
individual and collective activity
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(c)
60.
What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
- While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the
President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
- The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the
Chief Justice of India only.
- The salaries of the Judges are charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
- All appointments of officers and staffs of the
Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting
the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(a)
61.
To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue
research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In
this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?
- Thorium is far more abundant in nature than
uranium.
- On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral,
thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
- Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to
uranium.
Which
of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(d)
62.
The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the
temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs
(a)
the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
(b) the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
(c) all the solar radiations
(d) the infrared part of the solar radiation
ANSWER:
(d)
63.
Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the
origin of life on the Earth?
(a)
Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium
(b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus
(d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium
ANSWER:
(b)
64.
What are the reasons for the people's resistance to the introduction of Bt
brinjal in India?
- Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene
from a soil fungus into its genome.
- The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and
therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the
seed companies.
- There is an apprehension that the consumption of
Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health.
- There is some concern that the introduction of Bt
brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(c)
65.
Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically
engineered plants have been created?
- To enable them to withstand drought
- To increase the nutritive value of the produce
- To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in
spaceships and space stations
- To increase their shelf life
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(c)
66.
Consider the following statements:
The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian
National Movement was that he
- exposed the economic exploitation of India by the
British
- interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored
the self-confidence of Indians
- stressed the need for eradication of all the
social evils before anything else
Which
of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(a)
67.
With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept
alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?
- Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput
kingdoms during the Mughal period.
- Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual
music.
- Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below :
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above is correct
ANSWER:
(b)
68. How do you
distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?
- Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found
in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
- Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on
its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have
such a form of movements.
Which
of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER:
(a)
69.
With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics
were known to pursue which of the following practices?
- Meditation and control of breath
- Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
- Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of
ecstasy in their audience
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(d)
70.
The Rowlatt Act aimed at
(a)
compulsory economic support to war efforts
(b) imprisonment without trial and summary procedures
for trial
(c) suppression of the Khilafat Movement
(d) imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press
ANSWER:
(b)
71.
The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in
history, because
- the Congress passed a resolution demanding
complete independence
- the rift between the extremists and moderates was
resolved in that Session
- a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation
theory in that Session
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
I only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of the above
ANSWER:
(a)
72.
Lord Buddha's image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called
'Bhumisparsha Mudra'. It symbolizes
(a)
Buddha's calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from
disturbing his meditation
(b) Buddha's calling of the Earth to witness his purity and
chastity despite the temptations of Mara
(c) Buddha's reminder to his followers that they all arise
from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is
transitory
(d) Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this
context
ANSWER:
(b)
73.
The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of
(a)
Bhakti
(b) image worship and Yajnas
(c) worship of nature and Yajnas
(d) worship of nature and Bhakti
ANSWER:
(c)
74.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?
- It opposed idolatry.
- It denied the need for a priestly class for
interpreting the religious texts.
- It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are
infallible.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(b)
75.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers' bank. This would imply which
of the following?
- Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
- The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in
times of need.
- The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary
matters.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(b)
76. Under which of
the following circumstances may 'capital gains' arise?
- When there is an increase in the sales of a
product
- When there is a natural increase in the value of
the property owned
- When you purchase a painting and there is a
growth in its value due to increase in its popularity
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(c)
77.
Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply
in the economy?
- Purchase of government securities from the public
by the Central Bank
- Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the
public
- Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
- Sale of government securities to the public by
the Central Bank
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below :
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(c)
78.
Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?
- Subsidiaries of companies in India
- Majority foreign equity holding in Indian
companies
- Companies exclusively financed by foreign
companies
- Portfolio investment
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
ANSWER:
(d)
79. Consider
the following statements:
The price of any currency in international market is decided by the
- World Bank
- demand for goods/services provided by the country
concerned
- stability of the government of the concerned
country
- economic potential of the country in question
Which of the
statements given above are correct?
(a)
1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
ANSWER:
(b)
80. The basic aim of
Lead Bank Scheme is that
(a)
big banks should try to open offices in each district
(b) there should be stiff competition among the various
nationalized banks
(c) individual banks should adopt particular districts for
intensive development
(d) all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits
ANSWER:
(c)
81. Consider
the following:
- Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature
of the soil and the quality of crops
- Use of mobile cannons in warfare
- Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies
Which of the above
was/were introduced into India by the English?
(a)
1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None
ANSWER:
(d)
82. With reference to
the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the
country's economy, which of the following statements is /are correct?
- Every guild was registered with the central
authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority
on them.
- The wages, rules of work, standards and prices
were fixed by the guild.
- The guild had judicial powers over its own
members.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(c)
83.
The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian
Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the
(a)
Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
ANSWER:
(c)
84.
Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes
of coal?
- It is the policy of India to save its own coal
reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present
use.
- Most of the power plants in India are coal-based
and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the
country.
- Steel companies need large quantity of coking
coal which has to be imported.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(b)
85.
A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his
village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had
no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most
convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the
(a)
direction facing the polestar
(b) direction opposite to the polestar
(c) direction keeping the polestar to his left
(d) direction keeping the polestar to his right
ANSWER:
(c)
86.
Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements
called 'rare earth metals'. Why?
- China, which is the largest producer of these
elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export.
- Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile,
these elements are not found in any country.
- Rare earth metals are essential for the
manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing
demand for these elements.
Which
of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(c)
87.
Consider the following areas:
- Bandipur
- Bhitarkanika
- Manas
- Sunderbans
Which of the
above are Tiger Reserves?
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) l, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(b)
88.
Consider the following statements:
- The duration of the monsoon decreases from
southern India to northern India.
- The amount of annual rainfall in the northern
plains of India decreases from east to west.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER:
(c)
89.
Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical
Savannah Region?
(a)
Rainfall throughout the year
(b) Rainfall in winter only
(c) An extremely short dry season
(d) A definite dry and wet season
ANSWER:
(d)
90.
In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are
local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?
(a)
Biosphere Reserves
(b) National Parks
(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries
ANSWER:
(b)
91.
Consider the following kinds of organisms:
- Bat
- Bee
- Bird
Which of the above
is/are pollinating agent/agents?
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(d)
92.
Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of
endangered species?
(a)
Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
(b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian
Bustard
(c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane)
(d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal
ANSWER:
(a)
93.
Consider the following statements:
If there were no phenomenon of capillarity
- it would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
- one would not be able to use a straw to consume a
soft drink
- the blotting paper would fail to function
- the big trees that we see around would not have
grown on the Earth
Which of the
statements given above are correct?
(a)
1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(b)
94.
The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of
ecosystem services-provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and
cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?
(a)
Production of food and water
(b) Control of climate and disease
(c) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination
(d) Maintenance of diversity
ANSWER:
(c)
95.
What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?
(a)
Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live
in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains
(b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached
for its musk
(c) Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in
north-east India only
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is
correct
ANSWER:
(a)
96.
Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical
area?
- Global warming
- Fragmentation of habitat
- Invasion of alien species
- Promotion of vegetarianism
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(a)
97.
Consider the following:
- Black-necked crane
- Cheetah
- Flying squirrel
- Snow leopard
Which of the above
are naturally found in India?
(a)
1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER:
(b)
98.
Consider the following agricultural practices:
- Contour bunding
- Relay cropping
- Zero tillage
In the context of
global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon
sequestration/storage in the soil?
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of them
ANSWER:
(c)
99. What would happen
if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?
- The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely
affected.
- The food chains in the ocean would be adversely
affected.
- The density of ocean water would
drastically decrease.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER:
(a)
100.
Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are
rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to
(a)
the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species
(b) a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle
(c) scarcity of food available to them
(d) a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them
ANSWER:
(b
